Monday, December 29, 2008

Flying frog











Flying frog


It is said that the high magnetic field (and gradient) can make a frog fly. Let's see the possibility:

What exist most in biological tissue is water (human: 78% newborn, 65% one year old, 60% adult).

Here we simplify the problem by assuming we want to float water instead.

To make a drop of water fly, one has to counteract the gravity on the water, using, in this case, magnetic force. Therefore:

FG=FM, where


eq=F_G=\rho Vg


and


eq=F_M=\frac{\chi V}{\mu_0}B\frac{dB}{dz}


Hence,


eq=B\frac{dB}{dz}=\frac{\rho g\mu_0}{\chi }


Note that it has nothing to do with volume of the biological tissue.

Using the density of water g= 1.0x103 kg/m3 and the susceptibility χ=−9.035×10−6, one finds

BdB/dz = 1.4x103 T2/m.

Here is an list of the parameters of the magnets that I have worked with.


Stern-Gerlach I
Stern-Gerlach II
DC magnet

B (T)
1
2
33

dB/dz (T/m)
345
50
300

BdB/dz (T2/m)
345
100
9900







We can see that the DC magnet is able to do this in the center of the magnet. For this magnet, the threshold is about 13 T.

Wednesday, November 26, 2008

excitation-types






Confusing term crystal field exictation


The problem is the confusing term "crystal
field excitation" and "pure electronic crystal field excitation".
Normally people call the two peaks of Fe2O3 "crystal field
excitation", which is not completely wrong, but it does not really mean
literally pure electronic excitation as often found in the text book. In
stead, the absorption peaks in
Fe2O3 consist of excitations of various
natures that all have to obey selection rules. We hereby talk about some details as the following:

Type 1: Pure crystal field excitations: This is magnetic dipole
transition that does not have to obey parity selection rule. Spin orbit
coupling takes care of spin selection rule. This is purely on-site electronic
excitations. Sometimes it is also called Frenkel exciton. The intensity
is the lowest because of the magnetic dipole nature. The energy positions are expected to be at low energy end
of the spectra, if one can observe this type of excitations. Let me
emphasize that this type of excitation is does not create electric
polarization. In contrast, the other two are both electric type
excitations.

Type 2: Magnon sidebands, pure crystal field excitation + magnons. These
are many-body excitations involving Fe sites of both spin sublattice.
The total spin is conserved. Therefore the spin selection rule is
obeyed. The initial and final states have different parities, so the
parity selection rule is also obeyed. The intensity of this type is
supposed to be much higher than the type 1 but much lower than the type
3, which is why the we often can not see the peaks in spectrum of absorption
spectra directly. However, this type of excitation is sensitive to the
magnetic order, which is why they stand out when the magnetic field is
applied. Nevertheless, the intensity we see in
Δα is much
smaller than
α itself.

Type 3: Crystal field + odd parity phonons. This type of excitation is
mostly responsible to the total intensity we see in
Fe2O3. Here
spin-orbit coupling relaxes the spin selection rules and the addition of
odd-parity phonons makes the initial and final states different parity.
If we do fitting on the absorption spectra, we are getting the profile
of this type of excitations. This type of excitations can further couple
to even parity phonons and magnons. The detail of this type of
excitation can not resolved because of the O-p Fe-d hybridization and
the complex structure of odd parity (IR) phonons. In most literatures, so-called
crystal-field excitations actually refer to this type. After all, most
intensity of the absorption comes from here.



Some references:
Srivastava V. C. et al., Solid State Comm. v11, p41(1972)
Tsuboi T., et al, PRB v45, p468 (1992)

Friday, October 17, 2008

Brillouin function


Brillouin function




People often talk about Brillouin function in the literature and use that to describe the magnetic property as a function of temperature with a parameter J, the total atomic angular momentum. I got confused at first when I looked up the definition of the Brillouin function in my text book, which says:



B_J=\frac{2J+1}{2J}coth(\frac{2J+1}{2J}x)-\frac{1}{2J}coth(\frac{x}{2J})





eq=B_J=\frac{2J+1}{2J}coth(\frac{2J+1}{2J}x)-\frac{1}{2J}coth(\frac{x}{2J})




where x=\frac{\mu B}{k_BT}




eq=x=\frac{\mu B}{k_BT}






Then the question is where is the field B when people show their Brillouin function.




The answer has to do with the context of ferromagnetism. In Weiss mean field theory, the ferromagnetism is explained in terms of the molecular field B
m that is proportional to the magnetization of the material M:



B_m=\gamma M





eq=B_m=\gamma M



Then the ferromagnetism can be found from the following self consitent eqations (SCE):




\frac{M}{M_s}=B_r(x) 


\frac{M}{M_s}=\frac{k_BT}{\gamma M_s\mu}x













The first equation is the thermal dynamic average of the moment, second one describes the relation between x and the magetization. Here is the list of the meaning of the symbols:



M: magnetization





μ: magnetic moments of the sites μ=gJμB

Ms: staturation magnetization Ms=N
μ where N is the density of the magnetic sites.



The solution of the temperatures gives the magnetization at different temperature. The only parameter here is
γ, unfortunately a microscopic interaction parameter we don't know. However, we have the knowledge of another important parameter, which is the phase transition temperature TC. Next, we will find out the relation between TC and γ and replace γ using TC in the SCE.



To find TC, we just have to remember when T
Tc, the magnetization M→0, therefore x→0. Hence, we can use the limit of Brillouin function at x→0, which is:

B_r(x)=\frac{2J+1}{3J}x



eq=B_r(x)=\frac{2J+1}{3J}x




Therefore, the relation between
γ and TC is found as:

\frac{k_BT_C}{\gamma M_s\mu}=\frac{J+1}{3J}



eq=\frac{k_BT_C}{\gamma M_s\mu}=\frac{J+1}{3J}




With this relation, one can easily change the SCE.

\frac{M}{M_s}=B_r(x) 

\frac{M}{M_s}=\frac{T(J+1)}{2T_CJ}x






eq=\frac{M}{M_s}=\frac{T(J+1)}{3T_CJ}x



Now all the discussion can be based on the relation between M/Ms and T/TC with the only parameter J.



However, the so-called Brillouin function is a transcendental function which can only be found from solving the SCE.

In the end, sometime Brillouin function refers to the solution of the SCE: M/Ms=f(T/TC), in stead of the function BJ
(x).



Friday, October 3, 2008

Useful scientific weblinks

Useful scientific weblinks


Chemistry

Field
Description
Link
Group theory
Point Group Symmetry, correlation table
http://www.staff.ncl.ac.uk/j.p.goss/symmetry/index.html

Crystal systemhttp://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crystal_system

Xystal Space group
http://img.chem.ucl.ac.uk/sgp/MAINMENU.HTM

http://cst-www.nrl.navy.mil/lattice/spcgrp/trigonal.html

character table
http://www.webqc.org/symmetry.php

All
S.C. Miller and W.H. Love, Tables of Irreducible Representations of
Space Groups and Co-Representations of Magnetic Space Groups. (Pruett
Press, Denver 1967) Much of this material is also available on the web:
http://www.cryst.ehu.es/ (Bilbao Crystallographic Server, University of the
Basque Country, Bilbao, Basque Country, Spain)

cystal structurehttp://jas.eng.buffalo.edu/education/solid/genUnitCell/index.html#
Crystal structure
AMCSD
http://rruff.geo.arizona.edu/AMS/amcsd.php
ElementsPeriodic tablehttp://www.fact-index.com/p/pe/periodic_table__standard_.html






SemiconductorOrganichttp://ceot.ualg.pt/optoel/theory/2terminal/



Phase DiagramAlloy (Tenary)http://www1.asminternational.org/AsmEnterprise/APD/
Cehmical product search
chembook
http://www.chemicalbook.com/Search_EN.aspx?keyword=3-HEXYLTHIOPHENE



Phyiscs

Field
Description
Link

Introduction to surface chemistry
http://www.chem.qmul.ac.uk/surfaces/scc/
Surface science



UK surface analysis forum
http://www.uksaf.org/tutorials.html




Thursday, September 11, 2008





















Geometric factor for FM and AFM

In the spin wave model of ferromagnetism and antiferromagnetism, important parameters are transition temperature (Tc, TN), exchange interaction parameter (J) and magnon frequncy (ω). Normally, Tc, TN are the easiest (and the first) to measure, it is possible to guess the other parameters out of them. From Green's function theory, one can derive the transition temperature.

Relation between T and J

FM



eq=k_BT_c = frac{2ZJS(S+1)}{3}<br />sum_{k}^{}frac{(1-gamma_k)}{N}


k_BT_c = frac{2ZJS(S+1)}{3}
sum_{k}^{}frac{(1-gamma_k)
}{N}


where S is the spin, Z is the number of the nearest neighbors, k is the wave vector and 
gamma_k = frac{1}{Z}sum_{n.n}^{}e^{ikdelta}


eq=gamma_k = frac{1}{Z}sum_{n.n}^{}e^{ikdelta}
where δ is the vector between nearest neighbors.

One can see that the parameter γk depends on the geometry of the crystal.

AFM

k_BT_N = frac{2ZJS(S+1)}{3}
frac{N}{sum_{k}^{}(frac{1}{1-gamma_k^2})}
[Hewson1964]

eq=k_BT_N = frac{2ZJS(S+1)}{3}<br />frac{N}{sum_{k}^{}(frac{1}{1-gamma_k^2})}





Geometric factors



One can see that different lattice differ only in the summation of γk. Therefore, we define the geometric factors for FM and AFM
G_{FM}=sum_{k}^{}frac{(1-gamma_k)}{N}
eq=G_{FM}=sum_{k}^{}frac{(1-gamma_k)}{N}

this is actually not lattice dependent because the integrations can be done analytically and result unity.






And,
G_{AFM}=frac{N}{sum_{k}^{}(frac{1}{1-gamma_k^2})}

eq=G_{AFM}=frac{N}{sum_{k}^{}(frac{1}{1-gamma_k^2})}






Lattice
GFM
GAFM
SC
1
0.67
FCC
1
0.74
BCC
1
0.84

Relation between ω and J

FM

hbaromega_k=2ZJS(1-gamma_k)

eq=hbaromega_k=2ZJS(1-gamma_k)


AFM

hbaromega_k=2ZJSsqrt{1-gamma_k^2}

eq=hbaromega_k=2ZJSsqrt{1-gamma_k^2}



Example:

RbMnF3

A prototype of antiferromagnetic material with bcc structure (perovskite), with only nearest neighbor interaction (J2/J1~0.01). The parameters are:
TN=82 K, ωmax=102 K. [Windsor1966]
From TN one finds J=3.5 K
From
ωmax one finds J=3.4 K.
Obviously, they are very consistent. indicating that the Green's function theory (with RPA) and spin wave model works very well.

BiFeO3

Bismuth ferrite has a distorted perovskite structure with complicated spin structure. For example, spin cycloid and weak ferromagnetism. However, those structure have much lower energy scale than TN. Considering that fact that the real structure is not so different from perovskite, with a rough approximation (especially under the circumstance that no body else has done only finer approxmiation), we can estimate J and ωmax from TN, assuming nearest neighbor and perfect bcc lattice of Fe.

J=27.3 K,
ωmax=818 K (70 meV).

Reference

[Hewson1964] HEWSON AC GREEN FUNCTION METHOD IN THEORY OF ANTIFERROMAGNETISM PHYSICA 30 : 890 1964

[Windsor1966] Windsor CG, Stevenson RW. SPIN WAVES IN RBMNF3
PROCEEDINGS OF THE PHYSICAL SOCIETY OF LONDON   Volume: 87   Issue: 556P   Pages: 501-&   Published: 1966





















Useful LaTEX Sites


To write formula

http://sixthform.info/steve/wordpress/?p=59

http://latex.liveserver.com/

http://thornahawk.unitedti.org/equationeditor/equationeditor.php

http://www.texify.com/links.php

http://www.codecogs.com/components/equationeditor/equationeditor.php

http://www.bgoncalves.com/online/latex/

http://www.tlhiv.org/ltxpreview/

http://mathtran.open.ac.uk/index.html

http://www.sitmo.com/latex/

http://out.l3s.uni-hannover.de:9080/Equation/

http://code.google.com/p/jstexrender/
<pre lang="eq.latex">
int_{0}^{1}frac{x^{4}left(1-xright)^{4}}{1+x^{2}}dx
=frac{22}{7}-pi
</pre>


http://mathurl.com/

To write document
http://dev.baywifi.com/latex/

http://nirvana.informatik.uni-halle.de/~thuering/php/latex-online/latex.php?sprachauswahl=2&aufruf=22103

http://www.sciencesoft.at/index.jsp?link=latex&lang=en

http://tex.mendelu.cz/

http://www.latexlab.org/

Sunday, August 31, 2008

Some understandings of ferroelectricity


Some conceptional paradox with ferroelectricity (FE).

Figure 1

1) As shown in Fig. 1, there is a one-dimensional system that consists equally N anions with charge -q and N cations with charge +q, separated by distance a. This system definitely has spontaneous permanent dipole moment p=Nqa, but why it is not FE?

Note that normally FE is defined for bulk (infinite) system, in which case not so many systems have FE. However, for a finite non-metallic system, spontaneous dipole moments are not rare at all. Figure 1 is actually a good example. Then the paradox is that the real systems are finite anyway, how come they are not normally FE?

The answer has to do with the imperfectness of the real system. One can see in Fig. 1, the direction of the dipole moment depends on the type of the atoms on the surface, which is random for a real system. For example, we don't normally have a NaCl sample that has a surface only with Na atoms and the opposite surface with only Cl atoms. This randomness will eventually cancel out these "spontaneous dipole moments", making the total dipole moment of the sample negligibly zero.

Figure 2
2) The system shown in Fig. 2 is trully FE.

For this system in panel A, the dipole moment is p=Nqa. But if the surface atoms change to panel B, the dipole moment is p=-Nqb. Therefore the randomness of the surface can not cancel the dipole moment, which on average is p=Nq(a-b). This is why the system is FE.

3) To summarize the cases we discussed above, to determine if a system is FE. We have to test if the system (infinite) is central-symmetric. In other words, whether you can find an unit cell that has an inversion symmetry. For the system in Fig. 1, it is central symmetric. But for system in Fig. 2, it is not. That's why it is FE.


Saturday, August 30, 2008

Low frequency dielectric constant


Starting from Lorentz model:

md2x/dt2+mΓdx/dt+mω02x=qE

which is the equation of motion for a bond electric charge q with mass m in an oscillating field E, where ω0 is the frequency of the Harmonic potential of the charge and Γ is the dampling parameter.

Take the oscillating form of x and E:

x=x0
e-iωt and
E=E0e-iωt

one get the solution:

x=q/m/(ω022-iΓω).

The the dielectric constant will be (notice that P=xq):

ε=1+P/(Eε0)=1+q2/mε0/(ω022-iΓω)

For a low frequency measurement ω0>>ω,which is valid for normal dielectric measurement because the lowest ω0 is normally at the 1012 Hz range.

In this case, we can ignore the high order term ω2,

ε=1+q2/mε0/(ω02-iΓω).

Imaginary part:


The imaginary part is

ε2=q2Γω/mε0/(ω04+Γ2ω2).

Experimentally, a maximum is always observed for the temperature dependence of ε2, here we can calculate the maximum by solving

dε2/dT=0.

Note that the only temperature dependent parameter is Γ.

Then one gets:

Γ=ω02/ω at dε2/dT=0.

Now let's look at the parameter Γ. It is a dampling parameter, which should be proportional to relaxation time τ, which satisfies the Arhenious relation:

τ=τ0eEa/(kBT)

where Ea is activation energy (or energy barrier to overcome the).

We can even define:

τ=Γ/ω02.

Then

τ0eEa/(kBT)=1/ω should give us the temprature where the maximum ε2 is, which is

Ea/(kBTmax)=-log(τ0ω).

Experimentally, fitting the the relation between Tmax and ω, one gets the activation energy Ea, which is what most paper shows.

Real part:

The real part dielectric constant is

ε1=q2ω02/mε0/(ω04+Γ2ω2).

One can see that it increases monotonic with temperature simply because of the temperature dependence of Γ.


Derivation of optical conductivity σ:


Noticing that E=D-P= ε0(εE-P), one gets

P=
ε0(ε-1)E (1)

The electric current density (considering
E=E0e-iωt):

J=dP/dt=-i
ωε0(ε-1)E (2)

Compare (2) with the Ohm's law:

J=
σE (3),

one gets:

σ=-iωε0(ε-1)=ωε0ε2-iωε01-1), therefore

σ1ε0ε2 and
σ2=-ωε0(ε1-1)

Friday, August 29, 2008

Derivation of absorption coefficient α.

Starting from Maxwell equations:
D=ρ
B=0
×E=B/∂t
×H=D/∂t (1)

To get a solution of EM wave, one need to use

B=
μμ0H and D=εε0E and plug into the last two equations of (1).

Then we have:

2E+μμ0εε02E/∂t2=0, the solution is

E=E0e-i(ωt+qr) (2)

where
ω is the frequency and q is the wave vector and

q=
ω√(μμ0εε0).

Note that normally
μ=1 for non-magnetic material (or even for magnetic material at high frequency) and μ0ε0=1/c2.

Therefore:

q=ω/c√ε (3).

Plug (3) into (2) and using the definition
√ε=n+ik for imaginary dielectric constant (whee n is the refractive index and k is the extinction coefficient), one gets:

E=E0e-iω(t+√εr/c)=E0e-iω[t-(n+ik)r/c]=E0e-iω[t-(n+ik)r/c]e-ωkr/c (4).

One can see that the electric field decays if there is an imaginary part of the dielectric constant.

By the definition of
α:

E2=E02e-αr, we get

α=2ωk/c.




Tuesday, August 19, 2008

Parity and spin forbidden optical excitations


In optical excitation, we are normally looking at the transition matrix element:

MijE=<φi|exE|φf>, where φi and φj are the wave functions of the initial and final states, E is the electric field.

Following observations are important concerning the MijE.

  • MijE vanishes for a lattice structure with inversion symmetry. In this case the excitation is called parity forbidden excitation.
  • The operator exE does not involve spin degree of freedom. So in order to have non-zero, the spin of φi and φj has to be the same. If the initial and final states have different spin, the excitation is called spin forbidden excitation.


How come we do see the "forbidden" excitation? Here are what happens in real material to circumvent the forbiddenness.


Parity forbideness
Spin forbideness
Single site
  • Existence of phonon reduces the symmetry
  • magnetic dipole excitation MijM=<φi|μB|φf>

spin-orbit coupling
Collective

Exciton + magnon


Exciton + Exciton

Tuesday, August 12, 2008

Why magnetic dipole transition intens...










Why magnetic dipole transition intensity is so low in absorption spectra compared to the electric dipole transition.


In optical process, both electric and magnetic dipole moment respond to the EM wave, causing additional energy

H'=HE+HM,

where HE=pE and HM=μB.

One can estimate the order of the magnitude difference by taking the ratio:

R=(pE/μB)2.

In EM wave, one has E/B=C/n, where C is the speed of light, and n is the refractive index.

For charge transfer optical process, it is reasonable to assume that p~eA=1.6e-19×1e-10 =1.6e-29Cm.

For magnetic dipole moment
μ, Bohr magneton is always a good estimation for the order of magnitude.

Therefore, the ratio between the typical oscillator strength of electric charge transfer and magnetic dipole excitation is:

R
~(1.6 e-29*3e8/9.24e-24/n)2=(5.2×102/n)2 >> 1
.

This is the reason that the magnetic dipole transition is normally not intense.

Wednesday, August 6, 2008



























Transition temperature, magnon frequency
ω and exchange interaction J


Ferromagnetic material
Material
Curie Temperature
T(K)
Exchange interaction
J (meV)
Magnon frequency
ħ
ω
Magnetization (M) and susceptibility (χ)

Mean field theory:

2/3*Z[S(S+1)]J

ħωk=2ZJS(1-γk)
γ
k=∑nncos(kδ)/Z
Z is the number of nearest neighbor, δ is the nearest neighbor vector.

Maximum: (k=
π/a)
ħωmax=4ZJS

For 1 D system,
maximum value will be
ħωmax=8JS
Bloch theorem
ΔM/M0
T3/2

Mean field theory:
χ=Nμ2/[3kB(T-Tc)]
EuO
69.1 (K)

0.5 meV (k=0.2 A)
3.2 meV (k=0.6 A)
4.6 meV (k=0.8 A)
5.5 meV (k=1.0 A)














Materials
Structure

TM (K)
TN (K)
Weak FM
Spin orientation
Exchange interaction
J
Magnon frequency
ħ
ω
Magnetization (M) and susceptibility (χ)



The relation between TN and J is missing, I could not find it anywhere.



ħωk=2ZJS{1-γk2}

Taking into account of anisotropy and external field
ħωk = 2ZJS{(1+gμBBA/(2ZSJ))-γk2} ± gμBB

At zero external field, we can get finite ħωk even for k=0  because of anisotropy.
ħωmin = 2ZJS√{gμBBA/(2ZSJ)(1+gμBBA/(4ZSJ))}

If we apply an external field, we can get spin flop when the mode of one branch of the spin wave goes to zero (instability)
Bf=√{4ZJSBA/(gμB)}

In the case that anisotropy is much smaller than J, in other words:
gμBBA>>2ZSJ,
we get
ħωmax=2ZJS,   k=π/(2a)
Then,
ħωmin = √{gμBBA*(2ZSJ)

Mean field theory:
χ=C/(T+TN)
MnF2


67.4 K



k‖z
ħωmax=54.8 cm-1

k‖x

ħωmax=50.4 cm-1

because of anisotropy
ħωmin=8.715 cm-1

e.g.
μBBA = 0.737 cm-1
then we can calculate (using the first order):
ħωmin=√{gμBBA*ħωmax}=8.99 cm-1

BiFeO3
Rhombohedra (distorted perovskite)

640 K


supposably weakly ferromagnetic below TN

ħωmax=445 (assuming kBTN=ħωmax)
ħωmin= 18.2 cm-1

We can estimate the anisotropy energy:
μBBA = ωmin)2/(għωmax) = 0.372 cm-1, corresponding to BA=0.8 T, which does not look right. In any case, there is no real data on ħωmax., if we can succesfully get the spin flop, then we probably can get ħωmax.

Fe2O3 Hematite
Rhombohedra (corundum)260 K
950 K

weakly ferromagnetic between TN and TM[111]c below TM
[111]c between TM and TN



Cr2O3
Rhombohedra (corundum)
312 K


94 K
ħωmax=600 K
RbMnF3
cubic perovskite

82 K


J1=3.4 K
ħωmax=100 K
(Windsor CG and Stevenson RWH, Proc.Phys. Soc. 87, 501)
ħωmin ~ 0

KMnF3cubic perovskite

88K























Saturday, July 26, 2008

Summary of 3d atomic orbitals





Symmetry
Orbitals
Free atom
E1
m=2,
Ψ3,2,2 = (1 / 81√(2π)) (Z/a)7/2 r2 e-Zr/3a sin2θ ei2φ
m=1,
Ψ3,2,1 = (√2 / 81√π) (Z/a)7/2 r2 e-Zr/3a sinθ cosθ e
m=0,
Ψ3,2,0 = (1 / 81√(6π)) (Z/a)7/2 r2 e-Zr/3a (3cos2θ -1)
m=-1,
Ψ3,2,-1 = (√2 / 81√π) (Z/a)7/2 r2 e-Zr/3a sinθ cosθ e-iφ
m=-2,
Ψ
3,2,-2 = (1 / 81√(2π)) (Z/a)7/2r2 e-Zr/3a sin2θ e-i2φ
Octahedral / TetrahedralOh / Td
E1 (eg)
x2-y2=(3,2,2)+(3,2,-2)
sin2θ cos2φ
z2=(3,2,0)
(3cos2θ-1)

E2 (t2g)
xy=(3,2,2)-(3,2,-2)
sin2θ sin2φ
yz=(3,2,1)-(3,2,-1)
sinθ cosθ sinφ
xz=(3,2,1)+(3,2,-1)
sinθ cosθ cosφ
Triangular bipyramid symmetry
E1
x2-y2,
xy

E2
xz, yz

E3
z2




Angular momentum operator:
Lz=(ħ/i)∂/φ